23rd August 2008, 12:52 AM
Although there is a qualification route of being absent for all but ninety days in the first year to being non-resident for tax purposes, it seems to me that anybody in this country, or any other, making a statement in their own country to go off and earn a living in an other country is qualifying themselves as self-employed in their home country.
Purely as logic, it then follows that to be self employed requires the statement of intent, which as it happens, since 2 years ago, is what the inland revenue requires of anybody intending to go self-employed and with a heavy fine if ignored. It seems to me that mr host has missed this very important qualification off the -are you or not self-employed list;, Tell the tax office that you are self-employed
A statement of intent, qualified by simply informing ones tax officeâ¦
Host when you went self-employed did you inform your tax office?
Purely as logic, it then follows that to be self employed requires the statement of intent, which as it happens, since 2 years ago, is what the inland revenue requires of anybody intending to go self-employed and with a heavy fine if ignored. It seems to me that mr host has missed this very important qualification off the -are you or not self-employed list;, Tell the tax office that you are self-employed
A statement of intent, qualified by simply informing ones tax officeâ¦
Host when you went self-employed did you inform your tax office?