3rd June 2010, 05:08 PM
Following on from the end of the discussion on the BNP's use of archaeology as proof of their .. ahem... 'flawed principals' I was pondering this question... as many political parties and religious groups and even whole countries, try to prove a specific point (which usually goes along the lines of we are ancient, we are the real masters of this area/region/planet) and I wonder whether they are missing the point of archaeology... as archaeology can only deal in absolutes...
ie this is a ceramic... this is stone..... this person was born here... this person died...
the rest is best guess based on the available (and I stress the word available) evidence.
absence of evidence is not evidence of absence and all that. So this leaves us open to any crackpottery ideas.. ie. just because we have now found the Aryan stronghold of guff the destroyer does not mean that its was not there... ergo cogito bllks.
Here is the question.... Can archaeology prove anything? :face-huh:
ie this is a ceramic... this is stone..... this person was born here... this person died...
the rest is best guess based on the available (and I stress the word available) evidence.
absence of evidence is not evidence of absence and all that. So this leaves us open to any crackpottery ideas.. ie. just because we have now found the Aryan stronghold of guff the destroyer does not mean that its was not there... ergo cogito bllks.
Here is the question.... Can archaeology prove anything? :face-huh: